I recently saw a clip of Dr Barkley saying that in the new DSM-V there will be no more ADD-PI. I have been reading for years ppl (mostly with hyperactive diagnosis themselves) yelling about how PI should not be separated from ADHD at all, and I don't get it because my husband has the PI diagnosis and he couldn't appear more different from the hyperactive folks if he tried!
So anyway in this clip, and I have been researching ever since but I find the info out there on SCT to be thin and confusing, Dr Barkley says the DSM-V will categorize ADHD as with and without conduct disorder. He seemed to believe that everyone with ADHD is combined with both hyperactive and inattentive symptoms and there will also be a group called sub-threshold ADHD for the people who missed the hyperactive symptoms by 1 or maybe 2.
My husband only has 1 or maybe 2 hyperactive symptoms, and was never hyperactive as a child, so based on what I am reading (and if I am making correct sense of it) he will no longer be categorized as AD/HD. Apparantly the future of ADHD will require that you are now hyperactive or were as a child. The only thing left for the inattentives (and Dr Barkley is opposed to it being called ADHD of any type) is SCT. He says it is a very different disorder.
Now my husband fits SCT symptoms pretty much 100% but they aren't really substantially different from Inattentive ADD so that makes sense. The claim, though no one seems to know a ton about it, is that SCT is an input disorder whereas ADHD is an output disorder. My husband has poor hearing due to a job injury and several in his family have auditory processing disorder supposedly (but also really poor hearing sometimes requiring hearing aids) but his hearing is the only point of input which could be a problem and his issue more than anything is extrapolating incorrectly from what he hears.
He is constantly saying 'I thought you wanted to know x' and I will say 'But why do you think that when I said nothing of the sort? what did I say?' and of course my words have nothing whatsoever to do with what he inferred/assumed/or decided arbitrarily that I or someone else 'really meant'. This is a frustration to me, but sometimes causes real problems for him with work and other responsibilities he has because what he assumes based on a convo is not what the other person believes was decided. So is that an input disorder? And there is no way that all his issues arise from this one input problem which I thought was poor hearing combined with a desire to assume rather than listen and think it through.
The other thing of concern to me with SCT is that I was told stimulants do not help them, which, is not being born out by anecdotal evidence accd to ppl who are believed to have it (as far as I know it isn't even a diagnosis yet), but if it becomes clear that stimulants do not help SCT, then we are in no man's land because stims definitely have helped my husband. And for those who remember his idiotic little test a while ago, he went off them to see if anyone noticed a difference and we ALL noticed a difference without knowing why since he kept going off them a secret!
I have believed after that point that we were both on board with the 'meds make a big difference' bandwagon, but when we had this discussion about SCT possibly being our diagnosis of the future and I told him what I read about stims supposedly not helping, he said "well really how much difference do they really make anyway?" like he notices little benefit and I was SHOCKED. When we've talked about his meds and dose and especially after his trying to do without them fiasco, our convo was that we've both really noticed benefits with the meds. I just feel at a loss today with both him, his diagnosis, and what I am believing is an attitude about taking meds. He says he has no additude, but 'how much diff do they make anyway' definitely sounds like he doesn't think they help much.
Anyone know where we are supposed to go from here?